I’m writing a non-fiction book,and part of it is about a college student who had been playing college basketball just one year before death. He died a year later in 1972 at age 23, and the official cause of death was Uremia. His obituary said he had been “ill for 6 months before he died” in a New Jersey hospital.It is not known if he used IV drugs, but he did use LSD and unknown green and yellow pills. I assume for him to die, both of his kidneys must have stopped functioning. How could he have died so quickly? Does this mean he died because he refused dialysis? He may have suffered from a mental illness also, possibly Schizophrenia.

I am unable to make a specific diagnosis based on the information that you present.  Kidney disease can be very silent and not apparent until someone is very ill.  It is not uncommon for kidney disease to present at a very late stage, but dialysis should have been available for treatment in 1972, if this is the only cause of death.  So, I would have to conclude that there was more than kidney disease alone that was responsible for death. In 1972, dialysis would have been available, but very expensive.  Medicare coverage of dialysis was not available at that time.


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